Possible Duplicate: Prove 0! = 1 0! = 1 from first principles Why does 0! = 1 0! = 1? All I know of factorial is that x! x! is equal to the product of all the numbers that come before it. The product of 0 and …

Mar 28, 2022 · António Manuel Martins claims (@44:41 of his lecture "Fonseca on Signs") that the origin of what is now called the correspondence theory of truth, Veritas est adæquatio rei et …

What I would say is that you can multiply any non-zero number by infinity and get either infinity or negative infinity as long as it isn't used in any mathematical proof. Because multiplying by infinity is …

Nov 23, 2025 · The main criteria is that it be asked in bad faith. ;-). I'm not entirely insincere: The question is rather how can we tell that, and a big part of the answer is "context"; it's not mainly the …

Oct 26, 2012 · What's the difference between Fourier transformations and Fourier Series? Are they the same, where a transformation is just used when its applied (i.e. not used in pure mathematics)?

Dec 13, 2010 · The following formula for $\\pi$ was discovered by Ramanujan: $$\\frac1{\\pi} = \\frac{2\\sqrt{2}}{9801} \\sum_{k=0}^\\infty \\frac{(4k)!(1103+26390k)}{(k!)^4 396^{4k ...

In 1910, Srinivasa Ramanujan found several rapidly converging infinite series of $\\pi$, such as $$ \\frac{1}{\\pi} = \\frac{2\\sqrt{2}}{9801} \\sum^\\infty_{k=0 ...

Dec 29, 2024 · Q&A for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields

Jun 2, 2022 · To find the Laplacian at a point (x, y) (x, y) with y = 1 y = 1 you cannot put y = 1 y = 1 in the beginning and start differentiating. You have to first find uxx +uyy u x x + u y y at a general point …

Jan 21, 2026 · I reiterate the only sensible suggestion: to read the text. The source is John Austin (legal philosopher: 1790 - 1859) 's treatise The province of jurisprudence determined (1832), page 199 of …